under the law of Christ?

Originally posted on May 22, 2009 – by Andre Piet

In 1 Corinthians 9 Paul writes (NBG):

19 For though I am free from all, I make myself a slave to all, that I may gain the more; 20 and to the Jews I became as a Jew, that I might gain Jews; to those under the law, as under the law – though personally not under the law – that I might gain those under the law; 21 to those without law I became as without law – though not without the law of God, for I stand under the law of Christ – that I might gain those without law.

The Statenvertaling renders the last verse not much differently:

To those who are without the law I became as without law (not being without the law to God, but under the law to Christ), that I might gain those who are without the law.

Both the Statenvertaling and the NBG-51 (and incidentally also the NBV) have Paul saying that he stands under the law of Christ. And that is peculiar, because in verse 20 Paul had just declared that he personally is “not under the law.”

When we zoom in on the precise text (see the free ISA program), it turns out that the text says something slightly different than the translators have rendered.

Where KJV renders: “but under the law of Christ” (blue), it literally reads (green): “but legally* of Christ.”

Paul does not say here that he stands under the law of Christ, but that he is legally of Christ, that is, that he rightfully belongs to Him. Christ is his Owner (for bought and paid for; 1 Cor. 7:22), and therefore He is also the One who cares for him, directs him and leads him.
Not an unimportant difference, it seems to me…

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En nomos consists of two elements: IN and LAW. It occurs two times in the NT.

The other time is in Acts 19:39. There it is translated as
“lawful” (NBG-51 + Telos),
“legal” (KJV + Darby),
“official” (NIV).
“legal” (Young’s Literal + Concordant Version).

Delen: