“my Lord and my God!”01-04-2015 - Posted by Andre Piet
Thomas answered and said to Him, “My Lord and my God!” -John 20:28-
How could Thomas say something like that to Jesus? Is not God, the Father, “the only true God”?
Now it is eonian life that they may know Thee (=the Father), the only true God, and Him Whom Thou dost commission, Jesus Christ. -John 17:3-
We can only understand this in light of what Jesus had taught His disciples. In John 12:45 Jesus says:
And he who is beholding Me is beholding Him Who sends Me.
This same idea of identification we find in John 14, where a conversation is recorded between Tomas (!) and Jesus.
5 Thomas is saying to Him, “Lord, we are not aware whither Thou art going, and how can we be aware of the way?” 6 Jesus is saying to him, I am the Way and the Truth and the Life. No one is coming to the Father except through Me. 7 If you had known Me, you would have known My Father also. And henceforth you know Him and have seen Him.
By seeing Jesus, he saw the Father. How else, because no one has ever seen God.
God no one has ever seen. The only-begotten God, Who is in the bosom of the Father, He unfolds Him. -John 1:18-
He who sees Jesus, sees the God Who sent Him. The wording in the original of John 20:28 also confirms that Thomas refers to two persons. Would it have stated: “My Lord and God,” then Lord and God can refer to one person. But in the original it says (rendering it word for word): “The Lord of-me and the God of-me” and that is an indication that Lord and God refer to two persons. So in light of the preceding teachings in John’s evangel, Thomas says:
My Lord (= “who sees Me”) and my God (= “sees Him Who sent Me”).